Page 191 - Demo

Question 22A 25-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain, fever, and purulent vaginal discharge. What is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?A) Oral amoxicillin onlyB) IM ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazoleC) IV gentamicin + IV clindamycinD) Oral azithromycin onlyE) Oral ciprofloxacin + oral metronidazoleAnswer: B) IM ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazoleExplanation: This combination is the recommended outpatient treatment for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID), covering the most common causative organisms including Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.